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Shuriken
14-03-2005, 05:29 PM
Hi, I'm sure this has been said many times over but here we go anyway.

When I had the car MOT'ed (around christmas) I was told that a rear wheel bearing was on its way out (cant remember which - offside i think) and it's got to the point now where it needs to be replaced. The question is, do I replace the offending item on it's own, or do I do both?

One garage I got a quote from said "pointless having both done" and that was a BMW specialist garage who help the dealer when they run out of space, so I would presume they know what they're talking about. However, some people say you should do what you do to one for both and the following point has also been made; if you replace one and not the other, they will have different resistances to the turning which isn't good. Any and all thoughts welcome because obviously, I do not want to spend money when I don't have to, but I want to do whats best for the car.

Thanks,

Shuriken.

peppernick
14-03-2005, 06:10 PM
Bearings only need replacing when they are worn or seize. You can just do the offending side. Resistance should be a problem.

Shuriken
14-03-2005, 07:04 PM
I presume therefore you mean "shouldn't", either way, cheers.

Shuriken.

alpina527
15-03-2005, 07:00 PM
Yes, one bearing on it's own is fine. Shocks etc, should always be done in pairs.
It's amazing how the stealers always recommend doing things like this in pairs, but when you claim on their warranty, it's a different story. 'Sorry sir, but it was only worn on one side'

Defector
16-03-2005, 12:58 PM
Ok, cheers

Shuriken.